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You are planning a CIFS DR solution for two existing EMC VNX. Each VNX has dual Control Stations. Each VNX is also configured for a RecoverPoint protection solution on other VNX LUNs that are non-file related. What recommendation would you give the customer concerning the CIFS DR solution? A. Configure IP aliasing on the Control Stations for both source and destination VNX systems before configuring VNX Replicator B. Configure IP aliasing on the Control Stations for both source and destination VNX systems after configuring VNX Replicator C. Configure IP aliasing on the source VNX system Control Stations before configuring VNX Replicator, and then configure IP aliasing on the destination VNX system Control Stations after configuring VNX Replicator. D. Configure IP aliasing on the source VNX system Control Stations before configuring VNX Replicator and use RecoverPoint to provide protection of the source VNX Control Stations to the destination VNX. Answer: A
A customer recently upgraded from vSphere v4.x to vSphere v5.0 to benefit from new VMFS-5 features for their existing ‘DataStore1’ and ‘DataStore2’ datastores on an EMC VNX. A second identically configured VNX was implemented and the customer created two additional datastores on the new VNX.After monitoring the environment, the customer notices the VMs on ‘DataStore1’ and ‘DataStore2’ are not using the same sub-block structure as the two new datastores. What is the reason for this behavior? A. The old VMs are on an upgraded VMFS-5 datastore. B. The old VMs are still running old VMware tools. C. The new VMFS-5 features need to be licensed and activated. D. The new VMFS-5 cannot support two VNX storage systems. Answer: A
A Pool used for FAST VP has the following configuration: Flash drives: 1,000 GB, with 1,000 GB free SAS drives: 5,000 GB, with 2,500 GB free NL-SAS drives: 20,000 GB, with 11,500 GB free The tiering policy is set to Auto. An additional 600 GB of new data is written to the Pool. What is the data distribution after the data is written? A. Flash drives: 960 GB free SAS drives: 2,400 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,040 GB free B. Flash drives: 400 GB free SAS drives: 2,500 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,500 GB free C. Flash drives: 900 GB free SAS drives: 2,000 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,500 GB free D. Flash drives: 970 GB free SAS drives: 2,350 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,080GB free Answer: A
A customer wants to replicate a CIFS environment from a legacy EMC Celerra to a new EMC VNX. Users are able to access CIFS shares from both arrays. The CIFS shares are on different networks and replication is not running. The customer wants to make sure there will be no network restrictions preventing replication between the data movers on two different networks. What TCP ports should they ask the network team to open? A. 8888, 8887, 5081 B. 80, 443, 8080 C. 5057, 445, 5087 D. 23, 25, 22 Answer: A
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When planning for a Small Community Network (SCN), which two are required? (Choose two.) A. PRI service B. Preferred Edition C. IP Routes D. VCMs E. H.248 Answer: C, D
Which application can be used to show available resources in an IP500 V2? A. DbgView B. IP Office Manager C. Monitor D. System Status Application Answer: D
A customer wants all employees to be able to communicate seamlessly with each other and external parties. Some of their employees are often on the road, or off-site. Which application could you recommend for these users? A. Mobile Twinning B. Avaya Communicator C. Suggest the User divert their extension to their mobile D. one-X Mobile Preferred Answer: D
On an IP Office 500 V2 there are two SD card slots. The first contains the System SD card, which has a unique feature key number. The unique feature key number is essential for which purpose? A. to provide the upgrade tool B. to validate licenses C. to set the Voicemail type, either Embedded or Voicemail Pro D. to allow the storage of the correct version bin files Answer: B
On an IP Office 500 V2 there are two SD card slots. The first contains the System SD card, which has a unique feature key number The unique feature key number is essential for which purpose? A. to provide the upgrade tool B. to validate licenses C. to set the Voicemail type, either Embedded or Voicemail Pro D. to allow the storage of the correct version bin files Answer: B
A customer has given six employees the ability to hot-desk for when they come into the office. When they log off, their calls will go to their voicemail boxes. Employees want to retrieve their voicemail while out of the office. How should you set up DDI/DID to achieve this? A. DDI/DID to their Login code B. DDI/DID number to their Extension C. DDI/DID to the short code feature ¡°Voicemail Collect¡± D. DDI/DID to a Voicemail module ¡°Recording¡± Answer: C
Using the Upgrade Wizard, which Password is required when upgrading the IP Office 500 V2? A. Manager password B. Security password C. System password D. Administration password Answer: C
Which two applications does the Unified Communication Module (UCM) support without the addition of an external server? (Choose two.) A. Avaya Contact Recorder B. one-X® Communicator C. one-X® Portal D. Embedded Voicemail E. Voicemail Pro Answer: C,E
A customer has two main receptionists using SoftConsole; however, when they are on a break or at lunch, there are four back office workers that can open the SoftConsole on their PC to take calls to cover these periods. How many licenses are required for this to work? A. 8 B. 6 C. 2 D. 4 Answer: D
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Share some Network Appliance NCIE-SAN NS0-507 exam questions and answers below. The Linux Host Utilities 7.1 configures settings for which three protocols? (Choose three.) A. NFS B. iSCSI C. SMB D. FCoE Answer: A,B,D
Where do you identify the disk shelves and disks that are supported for a specific controller model? A. Hardware Universe (HWU) B. Interoperability Matrix Tool (IMT) C. Disk and Aggregates Power guide D. Installation and Setup Instructions poster Answer: A
For which two vendor products would the Unified Host Utilities Kit set HBA and CAN parameters? (Choose two.) A. Brocade B. Cisco C. Emulex D. Qlogic Answer: C,D
You are asked to create a volume and lun, both of which need to be thin provisioned. In this scenario, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.) A. Use the lun create command with the space-reserve parameter set to disabled B. Use the lun create command with the space-reserve parameter set to enabled C. Use the volume create command with the space-guarantee parameter set to none D. Use the volume create command with the space-guarantee parameter set to volume Answer: A,C
Where would you find the environment values of controllers and disk shelves (e.g. BTU and watts)? A. Interoperability matrix tool (IMT) B. Installation and setup instructions poster C. Config advisor D. Hardware universe Answer: D
The Linux Host Utilities 7.1 configures settings for which three protocols? (Choose three.) A. NFS B. iSCSI C. SMB D. FCoE Answer: A,B,D
When a new LUN is allocated, which volume and LUN configuration will use the smallest amount of storage? A. Volume guarantee none, fractional reserve 0, space reservation disabled B. Volume guarantee none, fractional reserve 0, space reservation enabled C. Volume guarantee volume, fractional reserve 100, space reservation enabled D. Volume guarantee volume, fractional reserve 100, space reservation enabled Answer: A
You are asked to create a volume and lun, both of which need to be thin provisioned.In this scenario, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.) A. Use the lun create command with the space-reserve parameter set to disabled B. Use the lun create command with the space-reserve parameter set to enabled C. Use the volume create command with the space-guarantee parameter set to none D. Use the volume create command with the space-guarantee parameter set to volume Answer: A,C
Where do you identify the disk shelves and disks that are supported for a specific controller model? A. Hardware Universe (HWU) B. Interoperability Matrix Tool (IMT) C. Disk and Aggregates Power guide D. Installation and Setup Instructions poster Answer: A
Where would you find the environment values of controllers and disk shelves (e.g. BTU and watts)? A. Interoperability matrix tool (IMT) B. Installation and setup instructions poster C. Config advisor D. Hardware universe Answer: D
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In HUAWEI OceanStor V3, which licensed feature is best described as: periodically detects hotspot data and promotes them from low-speed storage media to high-speed media. A. SmartMove B. SmartMigration C. SmartMotion D. SmartTier Answer: D
In HUAWEI OceanStor V3, the data coffer functionality is optional because the Write back cache is mirrored and there is a backup battery in each controller. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: B
Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. A RAID group is like a physical volume that consists of multiple disks. B. One logical volume can be created on a physical volume. C. Multiple logical volumes can be created on a physical volume. D. A LUN can reside on multiple RAID groups. Answer: D
After the UltraPath is installed on an application server, its operating system can automatically identify the disks mapped from a storage device without being restarted. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: B
Which of the following models has not been upgraded to the V3 standard? A. OceanStor SNS5192 B. OceanStor 5300 C. OceanStor 5500 D. OceanStor 6800 Answer: A
When you use the serial port to log in to a HUAWEI OceanStor V3 series storage device, which is the correct baud rate? A. 2400 B. 4800 C. 9600 D. 115200 Answer: D
What is NOT a characteristic of the Erasure code? A. With OceanStor 9000, files are chopped in 4MB parts. B. Main technology used to prevent file loss. C. Parts of the files can be spread over multiple OceanStor 9000 nodes. D. Uses a RAID 2.0+ like technology to store the parts on multiple disks. Answer: A
About HUAWEI OceanStor V3, the following 2 statements: Statement 1: With the SmartTier feature the SSD disks are in the Performance Tier. Statement 2: No more than 3 tiers can exist in the OceanStor V3 storage arrays. A. Statement 1 and 2 are true. B. Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false. C. Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true. D. Statement 1 and 2 are false. Answer: C
In HUAWEI OceanStor V3, which of the following statements about mapping a snapshot is true? A. Mapped snapshots are always Read-Only. B. Snapshots optionally can be mapped to multiple hosts. C. Snapshots can only be mapped to a the same host the original LUN was mapped to. D. All of the answers are true. Answer: B
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Share some HCNP-R&SH12-224-ENU exam questions and answers below. What is the function of the peer ignore command? A. Deletes a BGP peer. B. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does not receive the routes sent from the peer. C. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does not advertise routes to the peer. D. Retains all configurations of the peer, interrupts the BGP peer relationship with the peer, and clears all related routing information. Answer: D
Which of the following statements are correct regarding MAC address of VRRP packet? A. The destination MAC is broadcast MAC address. B. The destination MAC is multicast MAC address. C. The source address is virtual MAC address. D. The source address is physical MAC address of Master. Answer: BC
Status detection is an advanced communication filtering mechanism. It checks the application layer protocol and monitors the status of the connection-based application layer protocol. For all connections, the status information about each connection is maintained by ASPF and is used to dynamically determine whether to permit or deny data packets to firewalls. A. True B. False Answer: A
TRUE/FALSE: Only Router-LSAs and Network-LSAs are involved in intra-area route calculations. A. True B. False Answer: A
Which of the following routing technologies are supported by the Eudemon 200E? A. Static route B. Policy-based routing C. Routing policy D. Route iteration Answer: ABCD
By which can an IP-based advanced ACL filter packets? A. Source IP address and its subnet mask B. Destination lP address and its subnet mask C. Protocol type D. TCP or UDP port number E. Priority of the data packet F. Service type of the data packet Answer: ABCDEF
The TCP SYN flood attack usually occurs during the TCP handshake process. How many handshakes are required to set up a TCP connection? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: C
Different virtual firewall instances on an Eudemon must be configured with the same security policy. A. True B. False Answer: B
IP network can provide various packet forwarding service, the service demands that users care during packet forwarding include . A. Throughput B. Delay C. Jitter D. Loss of packet Answer: ABCD
What is the legal virtual MAC address in VRRP? A. 01-01-5E-OO-Ol-OI B. 01-00-5E-OO-OI-OO C. 00-00-5E-OO-Ol-01 D. 01-01-5E-OO-OO-OI Answer: C
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